2. Suppose that JP Morgan Chase; the Bank of England, and the Bank of China agree that they will not compete for investment services and that JPMorgan Chase is given an exclusive right to North and South America, and the Bank of England is given access rights to Europe; and Bank of China is given exclusive rights to Asia, India, and Australia. Is there a violation of US antitrust law here? If not, why not? If so, what act does it violate and how?

Answer rating: 100% (QA)

Answer As per the Sherman act of antitrust law businesses or individuals are not a... View the full answer