Question: A simple linear regression was performed to relate average ED waiting times to subjects sex, with x1 coded as 1 for male and 0 for

A simple linear regression was performed to relate average ED waiting times to subjects sex, with x1 coded as 1 for male and 0 for female. The regression results are as follows y=57.4 + -2.5x1, the estimated standard error of the slope of sex is 0.95. The R2 for this regression is < .01. Suppose x1 had instead been coded as 1 for females and 0 for males. What would the intercept value be in the regression of waiting time x1 with this new coding schema (1 for females, 0 for males) A) 57.4 B) 54.9 C) 2.5 D) -2.5

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