"attractive" $($for Segmentation$-$largeting$-$Positioning purposes$)$ than segments $1-4.$

$3.$ What explanation would you expect the Marketer to give if the Marketer ultimately decides the company $($at least for the foreseeable future$)$ should specifically and exclusively target the market comprised of Segments $1$ and $3?$ In other words, what potential reasons could the Marketer have for deciding to target Segments $1$ and $3$ but not Segments $2$ and $4?$