Can someone please explain to me why this statement is false?

c} Both normal and t distribution have a symmetric distribution. :or a normal distribution, we have more value at the middle. Here tail will be narrower. For a 't' distribution, we have big tails. So there is more probability at both ends oft distribution. So the probability of value more than some 1liralue in 't' is more than normal as we have a big tailtthick] fort distribution. 50 P( T > z} > PlZ>z} So this statement is false.