Question: Consider the function f(x)=- J-x, if x 1 I -2, if a >1 Then f(0) = f(2) = 0. Your friend claims that by

Consider the function f(x)=- J-x, if x 1 I -2, if a    

Consider the function f(x)=- J-x, if x 1 I -2, if a >1 Then f(0) = f(2) = 0. Your friend claims that by the Mean Value Theorem, f'(c) should be zero for some e in (0,2). (a) Find such a c or show why it does not exist. (b) Does your answer to part (a) contradict the Mean Value Theorem? Give reasons and provide a sketch of the graph.

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