Could you please explain what the author means when he writes"to calculate the EBITDA gained from the acquisition, we first calculate the average Enterprise Value increase from a market capitalisation of similar companies"? This is the only part I don't understand, and I'd appreciate it if someone could explain it to me. I have access to Bloomberg, but I'm not sure what I'm looking for.

Based on a relative analysis (using Bloomberg) of ten large UK consumer staple companies, MM's EBITDA is $5.9 billion. Assuming the acquisition target (Alpha-Groceries) belongs to the same industry, to calculate the EBITDA gained from the acquisition, we first calculate the average Enterprise Value increase from a market capitalisation of similar companies which measures 60%. Thus, LIBF-Groceries EV is $5 billion-plus the 60% average increase, which equals $8 billion. The average EV/EBITDA of UK consumer staple companies is 11.56, thus $8 billion divided by 11.56 equals the gained EBITDA of $690 million. Post-acquisition EBITDA of MM equals $6.6 billion and with a debt/EBITDA ratio of 2.8x holds $18.4 billion in debt. An additional $5 billion in debt would push the debt/EBITDA ratio to 3.56x, placing the client at risk of a downgrade. Thus, we recommend that 80% of capital be raised through debt and 20% through equity. An additional $4 billion in debt would equal a 3.4x debt/EBITDA ratio, limiting risk to a potential one-notch downgrade if leverage is prolonged post-acquisition, allowing MM to sustain its investment-grade status