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Gary pays his financial planner a one percent fee based on the value of the assets in his investment account. He noticed on his year$-$end statement that the firm rebated a $\backslash (\backslash$$ $1896\backslash )$ credit to his account. His planner said that was because the firm made $\backslash (\backslash$$ $1896\backslash )$ in dealer concessions from an IPO that he purchased. What type of fee arrangement is this?Fee offset by commissionFee$-$basedFee$-$onlyFee plus commission Last saved $1$ second ago.

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