Question: (d) If p(n) and q(n) are two functions such that p(n) is O(q(n)), does this always mean that for every value of n, p(n) q(n)?

(d) If p(n) and q(n) are two functions such that p(n) is O(q(n)), does this always mean that for every value of n, p(n) q(n)? If you think the answer is yes, give a justification. If you think the answer is no, give a counterexample i.e. find two functions p(n) and q(n) and a number y such that p(n) is O(q(n)) and p(y) > q(y).

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