(d) If p(n) and q(n) are two functions such that p(n) is O(q(n)), does this always mean that for every value of n, p(n) q(n)? If you think the answer is yes, give a justification. If you think the answer is no, give a counterexample i.e. find two functions p(n) and q(n) and a number y such that p(n) is O(q(n)) and p(y) > q(y)

SPECIAL NOTE: Please give an example if you agree. If you disagree with the statment: "for every value of n, p(n) q(n)", please give an example. Give a layman explanation. And if you are going to take a picture of your work and upload it, make sure the picture is readable and not cutoff. It must be fully readable.

than you