De Tocqueville: $"[$Americans$]$ have carefully divided the function of man and woman, in order that the great work of society might be better accomplished.... You do not at all see American women direct the external affairs of the family, run a business, or enter the political sphere..." Based on this statement, why did women not vote until the ${20}^{th}$ century in the U$.$S$.?$

Government did not secure the rights of women in the early days of the United States

Americans believed that men and women had different strengths, and so different roles.

American women did not have any rights in the early days of the United States

Women were regarded as inferior to men in the early days of the United States