Question: Disprove that if f ( n ) = O ( g ( n )) and g ( n ) = ( h ( n ))
Disprove that if f (n) = O(g(n)) and g(n) = (h(n)) then f (n) = (h(n)). To do this, you need to provide a counterexample by showing a specific f (n), g(n), h(n) that do not satisfy the above statement.
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