Question: Does there exist a linear map f : R2 > R3 whose kernel has basis {(1, 0)} and whose range has basis {(1,4,2)}? If it

Does there exist a linear map f : R2 > R3 whose kernel has basis {(1, 0)} and whose range has basis {(1,4,2)}? If it exists, give a formula for f(:1:,y). Whether it exists or not, explain gour reasoning

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