Explain why$$ risk$-$neutral probabilities can be used to price derivative securities in a world where investors are risk averse.

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Part $1$

$$Risk$-$neutral probabilities can be used to price derivative securities$$ because:$($Select the best choice$$ below.$)$

A$.$

The pricing of derivatives only depends on the prevailing$$ risk$-$free rate.

B$.$

The pricing of derivatives only depends on the relationship between the actual probabilities and the$$ risk$-$neutral probabilities.

C$.$

The pricing of derivatives only depends on the level of risk that investors are willing to take.

D$.$

The pricing of derivatives only depends on the characteristics of the underlying asset.