Florida passed a law, Sec. $501\mathrm{.}0117$ of the Florida Statutes, making it a misdemeanor for a merchant to "impose a surcharge on a buyer" for "electing to use a credit card" in a purchase transaction. Another part of the statute states that it is permitted to "offer a discount for payment by cash."

In Dana's R$.$R$.$ Supply v$.$ Att'y Gen., $807$ F$.3d1235(11{?}^{th}$ Cir. $2015),$ rehearing denied January $13,2016$ a federal court of appeals concluded the Florida statute violated the U$.$S$.$ Constitution, specifically the First Amendment. How did it reach that conclusion?