Question: For any function g(n), such that g(n)>0 for all n, there are infinitely many functions f(n), so that f(n)=O(g(n)). True or false

For any function g(n), such that g(n)>0 for all n, there are infinitely many functions f(n), so that f(n)=O(g(n)).

True or false

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