for Question B$,$ I$\text{'}$m getting that the partial is $2/$s$-2/($s$+1)-2/($s$+1)^2$

I also seem to be getting lost after that I have a table to inverse laplace transforms so I know that you can break it apart and just use that n$!/($s$-$a$)^$n$-1$ is t$^$n e$^($at$)$ but I really just get lost as to why the answer is not $2($te$^-$t$+$e$^-$t$+1)$ I mean I figure the $2/$s should be carried over using the $1/$s rule