For the following question, given a pseudorandom generator $($PRG$)G$:$\{0,1{\}}^n\{0,1{\}}^m.$

Define $G_2(s)$:$=G(s)o\frac{+}{b}ar(1),$ i$.$e$.,$ the new function $G_2(*)$ runs $G$ first, and XORs the output string with the all$-1$ string $($flip every bit of $G(s).$ Is $G_2(*)$ a PRG$?$ Briefly explain why.