Question: For the intermediate value theorem why do you think it is necessary for the signs of f(a) and f(b) to be different in order to

For the intermediate value theorem why do you think it is necessary for the signs of f(a) and f(b) to be different in order to guarantee there is a zero between a and b.

If it is the case that the signs of f(a) and f(b) are the same, does that mean the function f(x) cannot have a zero between a and b? Explain.

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