Question: Given a relational schema R ( A , B , C , D ) , A - > - > BC does not logically imply

Given a relational schema R(A, B, C, D), A ->-> BC does not logically imply A ->-> B (this is true for FDs, but not for MVDs). Construct an example to illustrate this (i.e., a relation instance where the former holds, but the latter doesn't).

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