Hello. I have a confusing question about the market equilibration through rent-seeking. Here is what the Core-Econ Book says:

"The hats example illustrates how markets adjust to equilibrium through the pursuit ofdisequilibrium economic rents:

• When a market is in competitive equilibrium: If there is an exogenous change in demand or supply, there will be either excess demand or excess supply at the original price.
• Then, there arepotential rents: Some buyers are willing to pay prices that are different from the original price, but above the marginal cost for the seller.
• While the market is in disequilibrium: Buyers and sellers can gain these rents by transacting at different prices. They becomeprice-makers.
• This process continuesuntil there is a new competitive equilibrium: At this point there is no excess demand or supply, and buyers and sellers are price-takers again."

The text is summarised based on an example when demand for the good increase, which I understand. But, if we consider a situation in which the supply falls, not any change in demand, will the text still make sense?

I don't understand in this situation: who will gain economic rents when the supply falls, suppliers or demanders? I'd say it's suppliers only because they sell less at a higher price, while demanders do not because they buy less at a higher price.

Please help me with this. I am really grateful!