Hi,

In a private nuisance case under what circumstances does a plaintiff have a title to sue. I believe that actual AND exclusive possession of the land is required (Hunter v Canary Wharf), however, I don't really know what these words mean. I also don't know what other factors are requiredin establishing if a plaintiff has a title to sue.

In short; 1) Can you please distinguish between Actual and Exclusive Possessiongiving an example 2) What other things need to be proved when establishing if there is a title to sue.

Thanks :)