Question: If both Poisson and binomial probability does comply with the rule that the sum of all the probabilities is equal to 1. Then when I

If both Poisson and binomial probability does comply with the rule that the sum of all the probabilities is equal to 1. Then when I am solving problem using the Poisson formula why the sum of probabilities is not equal to 1 whereas when I am using Binomial it is equal to 1.

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