Question: If f(z) has an inverse function f-(a), could either the graph of for the graph of f- be symmetric withrespect to the y-axis? Please, explain


If f(z) has an inverse function f-¹(a), could either the graph of for the graph of f-¹ be symmetric withrespect to the y-axis? Please, explain your reasoning or use an example to illustrate your answer.
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