Question: If Jack's Beans applies overhead using direct labor hours and has an unfavorable direct labor variance, how would this affect the total manufacturing overhead variance?

If Jack's Beans applies overhead using direct labor hours and has an unfavorable direct labor variance, how would this affect the total manufacturing overhead variance?

There would be no mathematical correlation between them.

The total manufacturing overhead variance would be favorable.

The total manufacturing overhead variance would be zero.

The total manufacturing overhead variance would be unfavorable.

If Jack's Beans applies overhead using direct

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