If k$-1$ values for the first$-$order dissociation of BX and BY are known to be equal, which of the following is true and why? Circle the correct answer and explain your reasoning below.

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A$.$ KD$($BX$)<$ KD$($BY$)$ ; k$1$X $>$ k$1$Y

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B$.$ KD$($BX$)=$ KD$($BY$)$ ; k$1$X $=$ k$1$Y

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C$.$ KD$($BX$)>$ KD$($BY$)$ ; k$1$X $<$ k$1$Y

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D$.$ No conclusion can be drawn from the data provided.

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Explanation: