Question: If we estimate the regression WAGE = 1 2EDUC e for individuals living in a metropolitan area, where METRO = 1, is there a statistically

If we estimate the regression WAGE = 1 2EDUC e for individuals living in a metropolitan area, where METRO = 1, is there a statistically significant positive relationship between expected wages and education at the 1% level for these individuals? Clearly state the test statistic used, the rejection region, and the test p-value. What do you conclude? How much of an effect is there and what does it mean

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