In bivariate regression, the regression coefficient will be equal to /xy when: O The variables are standardized (beta weights; B) O The variables are unstandardized (b weights) O The intercept is equal to 1 O Never - bivariate regression and correlation have nothing in commonWhich of the following effect sizes does NOT measure the proportion of variance accounted for (i.e., "explained") between variables? 0 Adjusted R2 0 Multiple R O r2 O R2 \fQUESTION 7 What happens to the intercept in a regression equation when variables are standardized? O The intercept becomes 0 O The intercept becomes 1 O The intercept is not affected by standardization 0 It's impossible to predict what happens to the intercept, as it will differ depending on the values in the original equation