Question: In March 2 0 0 8 , the U . S . Treasury and the Federal Reserve arranged for the sale of the Bear Stearns
In March the US Treasury and the Federal Reserve arranged for the sale of the Bear Stearns investment bank to JPMorgan Chase in order to prevent Bear Stearns from having to declare bankruptcy. A columnist for the New York Times noted:
It was an oldfashioned bank run that forced Bear Stearns to turn to the federal government for salvation....The difference is that Bear Stearns is not a commercial bank, and is therefore not eligible for the protections those banks received years ago when Franklin D Roosevelt halted bank runs with government guarantees.
Source: Floyd Norris, FDRs Safety Net Gets a Big Stretch," New York
Times
March
Part
How can an investment bank be subject to a run?
A
It can be subject to a run when large sums are invested in bonds.
B
It can be subject to a run if investors renew their repurchase agreements.
C
It can be subject to a run when the Federal Reserve provides additional protection to commercial banks.
D
It can be subject to a run when
counterparties want to cash out their investments.
Part
What "government guarantees" did commercial banks receive years ago?
A
This would refer to the CFTC
B
This would refer to the FDIC.
C
This would refer to the SEC.
D
This would refer to TARP.
Part
How did these government guarantees halt commercial bank runs?
A
The FDIC eliminated the incentive of a bank run because a depositor's money was insured if the bank failed.
B
The government prevented deposit withdrawals by using extra taxation policy.
C
In case of bankruptcy, the government promised to cover all losses with Tbills.
D
Under the FDIC, all commercial banks become nationalized.
How can an investment bank be subject to a run?What "government guarantees" did commercial banks receive years ago?How did these government guarantees halt commercial bank runs?
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