International Monetary Fund data from $2019$ indicate that output per$-$person in the United States was about $30$ times higher than output per$-$person in India. Suppose that the United States taxes capital at rate t$,$ and India taxes capital at rate t $.$ Further, suppose that the before$-$tax savings rate in each country is the same, such that differences in savings are only due to differences in the tax treatment of capital. In this case, the net $($after$-$tax$)$ savings rate in each country is given by: s net USA $=(1$ t$)$s$,$ s net India $=(1$ t $)$s$.$ Assume production in each country is given by Y $=$ K N $1$ $.$ Further, assume that population and labor productivity are constant.

a$.$ Find the ratio of steady$-$state output per person in the two countries as a function of the tax rates, t$,$ t $,$ and the capital share, $.$

b$.$ Suppose that $=31.$ If t $=\mathrm{.}1$ and t $=\mathrm{.}9,$ what is the implied ratio of

output per person in the USA to output per person in India

c$.$ Given the ratio you found in part $($b$.),$ are taxes on capital likely to be sufficient to explain large difference in standards of living across the two countries? What other factors $($not necessarily captured in the model$)$ might come into play?

$**$ I ONLY NEED HELP WITH c$.**$