Question: Is it possible to have a variable-overhead efficency variance of zero? Would that be correct in saying it is not favoruable (F) nor unfavourable (U)
Is it possible to have a variable-overhead efficency variance of zero?
Would that be correct in saying it is not favoruable (F) nor unfavourable (U)
and what does that mean?
Step by Step Solution
There are 3 Steps involved in it
Get step-by-step solutions from verified subject matter experts
