Question: Is it true that for any languages L and M over the same alphabet, (LM)* = L*M* ? You must justify your answer with a

Is it true that for any languages L and M over the same alphabet, (LM)* = L*M* ? You must justify your answer with a proof or example. (You are expected to know which is appropriate.) PLEASE GIVE CLEAR EXPLANATION WITH PROPER PROOF AND EXAMPLES

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