just right choice no explanation please

When is statistical discrimination privately inefficient? O A. It is privately inefficient if the discriminated against group has an identical ability distribution as the undiscriminated-against group O B. It is privately inefficient if the discriminated-against group has different ability distribution than the undiscriminated-against group. O C. It is privately inefficient if the discriminated against group is paid the same wage as the undiscriminated-against group. When is it socially inefficient? Does it always harm members of the discriminated-against group? O A. It is only socially inefficient if the price of the firm's good rises because of the higher wages paid to the undiscriminated against group. It usually harms the discriminated against group and other groups because of the social cost of discrimination. O B. It is always socially inefficient because potential output is reduced whenever qualified individuals are barred from employment. It usually harms the discriminated-against group and other groups because of the social cost of discrimination O C. It is always socially inefficient because potential output is reduced whenever qualified individuals are barred from employment. It usually harms the discriminated against group, but typically does not affect other groups. O D. It is only socially inefficient if the price of the firm's good rises because of the higher wages paid to the undiscriminated against group. It usually harms the discriminated against group, but typically does not affect other groups