Question: Let f: AB be a function. We say that is invertible if there is a function g: BA such that: (1)f(g(a)) =a for all aA,

Let f: AB be a function. We say that is invertible if there is a function g: BA such that:

(1)f(g(a)) =a for all aA, and

(2) g(f(b)) =b for all bB.

Show that f is invertible if and only if f is a bijection.

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