Question: let f ( n ) and g ( n ) be asmptotically positive functions. Then: f ( n ) = O ( g ( n

let f(n) and g(n) be asmptotically positive functions. Then: f(n)= O(g(n)) implies g(n)= O(f(n)).
If you agree, then just state true. Otherwise, state False and provide a counter example.

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