Question: Let us say you have two functions : f(n) and g(n) such that f(n) = O(g(n)) Assume f(n) >= 1 and log 2 g(n) >=

Let us say you have two functions : f(n) and g(n) such that f(n) = O(g(n)) Assume f(n) >= 1 and log2g(n) >= 1

Determine whether f(n)2 = O(g(n)2) is true or false. If true provide proof and if false justify with a counter-example.

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