Question: Let Xi , i = 1 ; 2 ::: , be the independent Bernoulli ( p ) random variables and let Yn = 1 /

Let Xi, i =1; 2:::, be the independent Bernoulli(p) random variables and let Yn =1/n _(i=1)^nXi
(a) Show that (((n))(Yn - p) goes to ~n(0, p(1-p)) in distribution.
(b) Show that for p !=(1)/(2), the estimate of variance Yn(1-Yn) satisfies (((n))(Yn (1-Yn)- p(1-p)) goes to ~n(0;(1-2p)2p(1-p)) in distribution.

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