Please ask me a good question to receive $2$ bonus points.

E$.$g$.,$ In the lecture, we learned that if the price of asset A is a function of asset B$,$ then A is derivative, B is underlying. As we know that sometimes, a function has its inverse function, e$.$g$.,$ Y$=$c$0+$c$1$X ; its inverse function is X$=($Y$-$c$0)/$c$1.$ Then, could we say that B is a derivative of A$?$ In other words, can stock be a derivative while option being its underlying asset?

I would tell you that the answer is YES. And sometime, considering stock as a derivative and option as its underlying can simplify theoretical derivation.

Note that the question must be creative, illuminating, showing independent thinking. It needs to be $$Newton$$s apple$$ to receive marks.