Please only typing answer

Question 45 5 pts Scientists determine the probability of collecting their data for an experiment by chance alone. The p-value for a given experiment is an indication of how likely that data would be obtained if the independent variable had absolutely NO effect. al Knowing this, explain why one cannot prove there is a difference between treatment groups. b) How does our "confidence" that a real mean difference exists change as the p-value gets smaller? Why? (Hint: How does the risk of a Type I error change as the p-value changes?)