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You are evaluating two different silicon wafer milling machines. The Techron I costs $215,000, has a three-year life, and has pretax operating costs of $35,000 per year. The Techron II costs $270,000, has a five-year life, and has pretax operating costs of $44,000 per year. For both milling machines, use straight-line depreciation to zero over the projects life and assume a salvage value of $20,000. If your tax rate is 35 percent and your discount rate is 12 percent, compute the EAC for both machines. (Negative amounts should be indicated by a minus sign. Do not round intermediate calculations and round your final answers to 2 decimal places. (e.g., 32.16))

	EAC
Techron I	$
Techron II	$

Which do you prefer?

Techron II

Explanation:

We will need the aftertax salvage value of the equipment to compute the EAC. Even though the equipment for each product has a different initial cost, both have the same salvage value. The aftertax salvage value for both is:

Both cases: aftertax salvage value = $20,000(1 .35) = $13,000

To calculate the EAC, we first need the OCF and NPV of each option. The OCF and NPV for Techron I is:

OCF = $35,000(1 .35) + .35($215,000 / 3) = $2,333.33

NPV = $215,000 + $2,333.33(PVIFA_12%,3) + ($13,000 / 1.12³) = $200,142.58

EAC = $200,142.58 / (PVIFA_12%,3) = $83,329.16

And the OCF and NPV for Techron II is:

OCF = $44,000(1 .35) + .35($270,000 / 5) = $9,700

NPV = $270,000 $9,700(PVIFA_12%,5) + ($13,000 / 1.12⁵) = $297,589.78

EAC = $297,589.78 / (PVIFA_12%,5) = $82,554.30

The two milling machines have unequal lives, so they can only be compared by expressing both on an equivalent annual basis, which is what the EAC method does. Thus, you prefer the Techron II because it has the lower (less negative) annual cost.

AS YOU CAN SEE I HAVE THE ANSWER. THIS IS WHAT I NEED: I NEED TO FIGURE OUT WHAT THIS IS AND HOW TO CALCULATE IT. PLEASE ASSIST ME IN FULL DETAIL TO GET GOOD RATING. (HIGHLIGHTED IN BOLD)

NPV = $215,000 + $2,333.33(PVIFA_12%,3) + ($13,000 / 1.12³) = $200,142.58