Question: Prove that if $g ( n ) > 0 $ for all $n$ ( so $g$ cannot be 0 ) , then the two definitions

Prove that if $g(n)>0$ for all $n$ (so $g$ cannot be 0), then the two definitions are equivalent. That is, $f$ is $O(g)$ according to the first definition if and only if $f$ is $O(g)$ according to the second definition.

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