Question: Prove the theorem. Theorem 3.1 For any two functions f(n) and g(n), we have f(n) = (g(n)) if and only if f(n) = 0(g(n)) and

Prove the theorem.

Prove the theorem. Theorem 3.1 For any two functions f(n) and g(n),

Theorem 3.1 For any two functions f(n) and g(n), we have f(n) = (g(n)) if and only if f(n) = 0(g(n)) and f(n)-(g(n))

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