QUESTION 1

What problem do diploma mills contribute to?

	a.	listing completed degree achieved without any actual coursework
	b.	false contact information on rsums
	c.	good degrees but from unaccredited institutions
	d.	reduced attendance at actual universities

QUESTION 2

The four-fifths rule would say that no disparate discrimination has happened if which of the following has occurred for a given hiring period?

	a.	Ten protected class applicants for a position made it to the final stages of the interview process, and five were hired.
	b.	Twenty unprotected candidates and twenty protected class applicants applied to a position.
	c.	The application for the job position explicitly stated that no discrimination based on protected characteristics would be tolerated in the hiring process.
	d.	Ten unprotected employees were hired and eight protected class employees were hired.

QUESTION 3

Which of the following statements best characterizes the value or status of integrity tests in the workplace today?

	a.	Most research has shown little correlation between the results of integrity tests and actual job performance.
	b.	Only integrity tests backed by polygraph results have shown real-world accuracy.
	c.	Integrity tests have been largely invalidated and are rarely used.
	d.	Some research has shown dramatic accuracy and effect for integrity tests, but some studies still question their validity.

QUESTION 4

According to the EEOC, which of the following MUST be true of a candidates past criminal activity for it to be used as a reason for exclusion?

	a.	The crime must be job-related.
	b.	The criminal pattern must be ongoing.
	c.	The candidate must have served jail or prison time.
	d.	The crime must be self-disclosed.

QUESTION 5

Visual lie detection is best implemented when discrepancies have appeared in a candidates rsum.

True

False

QUESTION 6

While giving an interview, Ari has noticed that some of the candidates responses dont sync up with information given in her rsum. What is the best way for Ari to phrase a question asking about this issue?

	a.	You stated that
	b.	I cant imagine why you said
	c.	Im wondering why you said
	d.	Theres a problem with some of your statements

QUESTION 7

A manager has narrowed applicants for a new position down to a single preferred candidate. Interviews go well, and she is about to hire the candidate when she notices that the candidates rsum has a problemthe end date for one position extends for one year into the beginning date for the subsequent position. What should the manager do?

	a.	Contact the candidates previous employers and let them know about the issue.
	b.	Terminate the candidates application process.
	c.	Ask the candidate about the issue and forgive it if it was an innocent mistake.
	d.	Ask the candidate about the issue and then let the candidate know the hiring process cannot continue.

QUESTION 8

When can employers legally screen applicants for drunk driving arrests?

	a.	When driving is job-related.
	b.	Anytime they like, since it is not a protected behavior.
	c.	When an applicants manner and appearance seem to indicate drinking problems.
	d.	When the applicant admits to being an alcoholic.

QUESTION 9

Drunken driving arrests are an acceptable subject of query on an application if driving is pertinent to the job.

True

False

QUESTION 10

How do personality tests differ from integrity tests?

	a.	They make greater use of hypothetical situations.
	b.	They give a broader understanding of the candidate.
	c.	They deal less with ethics and more with wants and goals.
	d.	They are more likely to use a Likert Scale for grading.

QUESTION 11

Many changes and improvements have been made to polygraph testing. What does the modern polygraph detect?

	a.	half-truths
	b.	intent to act unethically
	c.	lying
	d.	nervousness

QUESTION 12

Which of the following components are necessary when designing a job description to achieve a good fit?

	a.	realistic description and mention of expectation of ethical behavior
	b.	mention of expectation of loyalty and expectation of ethical behavior
	c.	warning about punishments and mention of expectation of good work ethic
	d.	mention of salary and bonuses and promise of a friendly work culture

QUESTION 13

What is the first step in managing ethical work behaviors?

	a.	employee orientation
	b.	the hiring process
	c.	the official employee review
	d.	the employee-manager relationship

QUESTION 14

Which of the following would not be an acceptable subject of a question asked of a candidate in an interview?

	a.	five-year goals
	b.	clarification on an inconsistency in a rsum
	c.	ethical outlook
	d.	marital status

QUESTION 15

Why is the use of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory unacceptable early in the hiring process?

	a.	It requires disclosure of past treatment for mental health conditions.
	b.	It must be performed after an offer is given.
	c.	It violates protected applicants rights to be considered despite a disability.
	d.	It evaluates private information such as home life and marital status.

QUESTION 16

Which is a factor of organizational citizenship behavior?

	a.	collaboration
	b.	civic virtue
	c.	loyalty to supervisor
	d.	self-directedness

QUESTION 17

If a manager is implementing a hiring process and distributing applications in a state that has passed Ban the Box legislation, the manager likely cannot ask about what until after the interview process?

	a.	race or age
	b.	family status
	c.	ethical standards
	d.	criminal record

QUESTION 18

Ethics screens are inherent invasions of privacy.

True

False

QUESTION 19

Why did integrity tests become more popular after 1988?

	a.	The Likert Scale was introduced.
	b.	The Office of Technology Assessment validated the benefit of these tests.
	c.	The use of the polygraph was highly restricted.
	d.	Computerized assessments became more viable.

QUESTION 20

How does the text define the concept of disparate impact?

	a.	A companys hiring practices may be discriminatory with respect to a protected class but too minor to violate the Civil Rights Act.
	b.	Those who are members of multiple protected classes are more likely to be negatively impacted than members of a single protected class.
	c.	The activities of a company consistently harm a protected class in a specific geographic region.
	d.	Members of a protected class rarely make it through all the job-screening filters of an organization.