Question: QUESTION 2 Why do the courts imply terms into contracts if the parties have expressly agreed to all the terms they consider necessary? With reference

QUESTION 2

Why do the courts imply terms into contracts if the parties have expressly agreed to all the terms they consider necessary? With reference to a relevant case (for each part), explain the circumstances where a court will imply a term into a contract:

based on a course of past dealings and
in order to make the contract effective

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