Require this urgently. Can you please solve and explain:

(e)

(f)

You observe that the current three-year discount factor for default-risk free cash flows is 0.68. Remember, the t-year discount factor is the present value of $1 paid at time t, i.e. dt = (1 +r)-t, where rt is the t-year spot interest rate (annual compounding). Assume all bonds have a face value of $100 and that all securities are default-risk free. All cash flows occur at the end of the year to which they relate. Suppose you decide to purchase a 1-year zero-coupon bond today and also contract today to re-invest the proceeds from the bond for the following two years at 16.5% per year. Show that this arrangement presents an arbitrage opportunity. Demonstrate how you would take advantage of this opportunity. (6 marks) Consider discount factors such that d1