Question: s the formula P - > ( P Q ) valid in . . . ( a ) . . . ukasiewicz s system? (

s the formula P ->(P Q) valid in...
(a)...ukasiewiczs system?
(b)...Kleenes?
(c)... the logic of paradox?
(d)... the system of supervaluations?
In each case, justify your answer: if the answer is yes, give a metalogic proof; if
the answer is no, give a counterexample.

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