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Medical Sciences Questions and Answers April 12, 2018

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50. Which of the following drugs are lipid soluble? a) Phenytoin b) Caffeine c) Digoxin d) Antibiotics 51. Which of the following drugs get distributed to the same extent in both lean and adiposetissue? a) Phenytoin b) Caffeine c) Digoxin d) Antibiotics 52. Which of the following drugs can get distributed to the excess body space of obese patient?

44. Which of the following is a characteristic of battery powered pumps? a) Free flowing powders b) The system is programmed to release drugs at a controlled rate c) Control drug release by partitioning the drug from the oil d) Administration of emulsions 45. The drug loading in resealed erythrocytes can be done by 1st immersing the cells in a

38. Which of the following should not be a property of implants? a) Environmental stable b) Biostable c) Non-toxic d) Nonremovable 39. Which is the disadvantage for implants? a) More effective b) More prolonged action c) Significantly small dose d) Need of microsurgery 40. Subcutaneous tissue is an ideal location for implants? a) True b) False 41.

33. Which of the following is a characteristic of the parental controlled drug release system byliposomes? a) Free flowing powders b) Aqueous solutions c) Lipid bilayer enclosing the drug d) Administration of emulsions 34. Which of the following can be incorporated into a liposome? a) Only drugs and viruses b) Only Peptides and viruses due to

55. Release of a constituent from the plastic material of the container into the formulation isknown as ....... a) Permeation b) Leaching c) Sorption d) Blooming 56. Self sealability test is performed to evaluate........ a) Rubber closure b) Plastic container . c) Plastic closure d) Glass container 57. The semisolid dosage forms meant for single

11. Release of a constituent from the plastic material of the container into the formulationis known as ....... a. Permeation b. Leaching c. Sorption d. Blooming 12. Self sealability test is performed to evaluate........ a. Rubber closure b. Plastic container . c. Plastic closure d. Glass container 13. Water attack test / hydrolytic resistance

6. The cardboard is used as a ........ packaging material. a. Primary packaging b. Secondary packaging c. Tertiary packaging d. d.b and c both 7. ............... has a high hydrolytic and thermal shock resistance. a. Type I b. Type II c. c.Type III d. Type IV 8. To prevent blooming of type II glass ........ treatment is given. a. Plastic coating

1. Which of the following investigations are performed during preformulationinvestigations of pharmaceuticals? a. Solubility investigations b. Pka determination c. Stability investigations d. All of the above 2. What is required from an excipient? a. It has its own pharmacological effect b. It should not cause allergy c. It entirely influences the

28. Powdered glass test is performed to examine leaching potential of .... a. Exterior structure of glass b. Plastic containers c. Interior structure of glass d. Intact surface of glass 29. Which one of the following is not the principle problem area exist in plastic containers. a. Leaching b. Permeation c. Hardness d. Sorption 30. Sulphur is used

16. The semisolid dosage forms meant for single application into the eye are called as...... a. Ointments b. Contact lens c. Applicaps d. Lotion 17. From the types of dosage forms listed below, select the type commonly used for ophthalmic preparations. a. Lotion b. Elixir c. Solution d. Emulsion 18. From the list of characteristics below, select

22. Eye irritation study of ophthalmic products is done by: a. Sterility test b. Draiz test c. Endotoxin study d. Particle size analysis 23. The test for bacterial endotoxins (BET) is performed by using lysate obtained from..... a. Tachypleusgigas, b. Tachypleus tridentatus c. Limulus polyphemus d. All of the above 24. High efficiency particulate

33. DOP( ...........) is used in validation of HEPA filter. a. Dioctylpthalate b. Dioctylpyruvate c. Dioctahedralpthaladehyde d. Dioctane pthalazine 34. According to BCS classification, the drug having low solubility and high permeability are classified in: a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV 35. Lysis of compound due to presence of

39. Coulter counter is used to determine. a. Solubility b. Polymorphism c. Surface characetristics d. Particle size 40. What are the factors implicated in the performance and design of oral controlled release system a) physiology of larger site b) drug physicochemical properties c) biopharmaceutical properties d) all of the above 41. Which of the

44. Equation of osmotic pressure a) f(z) = 1-p/s b) f(z) = 1-s/p c) f(z) = S-1/P d) f(z)= P-1/S 45. Core material include a) drug b) additives c) stabilizers d) all of the above 46. Rate determining step for controlled released delivery system is........... a) absorption b) drug release from dosage form c) both a) and b) d) penetration 47.

1. Which properties are determined by using Carr's Index? a. Flowability b. Solubility c. Stability d. Pka value 2. ......... is performed to determine whether any capillary pores or tiny cracks are present on the vials or ampoules. a. Leaker test b. Clarity test c. LAL test d. Crack test 3. .is very common gram negative bacteria which are

49. which of the following type of implant a) root form implant b) ramus - frame implant c) blade - form implant d) all of the above 50. Limitation of implantable drug delivery system a) limited to potent b) possibility og adveres reaction c) biocompatibility issues d) all of the above 51. Zero order release kinetics is attained in a) sustain

55. Inversion sucrose in syrup due to heat is known as a. Isomerization b. Epimerization c. Tautomeriation d. caramelization 56. HEPA filters are widely used in a. Autoclaves b. Laminar air flow hoods c. Gas sterilizers d. Oxygen masks 57. Water insoluble coating materials used for microencapsulation include a. Ethyl cellulose b. Polyethylene

What does the symbol '@' mean for the practicing nurse or nurse's aide?

1 dialysis is two types. what are they? 2 where is the peritoneal dialysis done in our body? 3 what is meant by hemodialysis?

What does the symbol 'a with a line above it' mean for the nurse, nursing assistant or other medical professional?

What does the abbreviation A&D mean in the medical profession? What does the abbreviation A&P mean in the medical profession? What does the symbol 'aa with a line above it' mean for nurses and doctors?

What does the abbreviation 'Ab' stand for in the medical professions? What does the abbreviation 'Abd' stand for in nursing? What does the abbreviation 'ABG' stand for in the medical world? What does the abbreviation 'ac' mean for nurses and nursing assistants working in a hospital or a nursing facility? What does the abbreviation 'ACTH' mean for

Discuss the metreology and emology?

108. Correct statements for the IUPAC nomenclatures of the drugs are? I. Thiamylal: 5-(Pentan-2-yl)-5-(prop-2-en-1-yl)-2-sulfanylidenedihydropyrimidine-4,6(1H,5H)-dione. II, Secobarbital: 5-(pentan-2-yl)-5-(prop-2-en-1-yl)-1,3-diazinane-2,4,6-trione III. Quazepam: 5-butan-2-yl-5-ethyl-1,3-diazinane-2,4,6-trione IV. Triazolam:

97. Type of ring structures present in the structure of Alprazolam? a) Triazole b) Benzene c) Diazepine d) All of the above 98. Correct sequence for the True/False for the physiochemical properties of the drug solifenacin? I. Molecular weight is 308.8 gm/mol II. Produces crystals from ethylacetate III. Melting point is between 228-229C IV.

113. Correct sequence for the True/False for the physiochemical properties of the drug Chlordiazepoxide? I. Molecular weight is 299.75 gm/mol II. Yellow crystalline compound III. Melting point is 236.2C IV. Diazepine ring is present a) TFTF b) TTTT c) FFFF d)FFFT 114. Correct statements for the IUPAC nomenclatures of the drugs are? I. Solifenacin:

117. Correct sequence for True/false for the classification of the drug can be? Pentobarbital: benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic Quetipine : benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic Flurazepam: benzodiazepine Eszopiclone: butyrophenone a) TFTF b) FFTF c) TFFF d) FTFT 118. Triketo form of pentobarbital is? a) Most stable in aqueous solution b) Least

1. 7-Chloro-3-hydroxy-5-phenyl-1,3-dihydro-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one is the IUPAC nomenclature of which drug? a) Trihexyphenidyl b) Propantheline c) Oxybutynin d) Oxazepam 2. Match the following with correct classifications of the drugs. i. Propantheline A. Benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic ii. Oxazepam B. Barbiturate iii. Clozapine C. Muscarinic

5. Steps involved in the synthesis of Oxazepam from 6-chloro-2-xhloromethyl-4- phenylquinazolin-3-oxide in the correct sequence is? I. Polonovski reaction II. Treatment with sodium hydroxide III. Hydrolysis a) I II III b) I III c) II d) II I III 6. The drug Oxazepam is mainly used for? a) Treatment of anxiety b) Treatment of Acute alcohol

11.The activity of which of the following drugs is dependent on a p-phenyl N alkylpiperidine moiety? (a) Phenobarbital (b) Chlorpromazine (c) Diazepam (d) Meperidine 12. Which of the following agents would not be an alternative to Phenobarbital in the treatment of partial seizures? (a) Trimethadione (b) Gabapentin (c) Felbamate (d) Lamotrigine

16. An action common to most generalanesthetic (a) Increase in the cellular threshold of firing (b) Potentiation of spontaneous and evoked activity of neurons (c) Inhibition of effects of glutamate (d) None of the abvoe 17.Following is inverse agonist of benzodiazepine receptors (a) Flumazenil (b)-Carbolines (c) Chlordiazepoxide (d) Glutethimide

21.What are the important elements in considering treatment strategies for Parkinsons patients? (a) Age (b) Sex (c) Etiology of the disease (d) All of the above 22. Phenytoin is effective for the treatment of all of the following types of seizures except (a) Generalized tonic-clonic (b) Simple partial (c) Complex partial (d) Absence 23. Which of

26. A patient that has been treated with haloperidol for 3 weeks presents with muscle stiffness, tremor, and shuffling gait. This is most likely which type of extrapyramidal side effect? (a) Akathisia (b) Tardive dyskinesia (c) Pseudoparkinsonism (d) Acute dystonia 27.The atypical antipsychotics differ from the typical agents in various ways that

31. Which of the following patients is mot likely to require maintenance anti depressant therapy? (a) A 22-yearold woman depressed about the loss of a parent (b) A 33-year-old man presenting with his second episode of depression (c) A67-year-old man experiencing his first episode of depression (d) A34-year-old woman experiencing postpartum

44. Which of the following is a poor surface anaesthetic ? (a) Procaine (b) Lidocaine (c) Tetracaine (d) Benoxinate 45. The local anaesthetic having high cardiotoxic and arrhythmogenic potential is (a) Lidocaine (b) Procaine (c) Bupivacine (d) Chloroprocaine 46. Which of the following is a sign of deep anaesthesia ? (a) Appearance of tears in eyes

37. Fluoxetine is a________ transport blocker (a) Serotonin (b) Norepinephrine (c) Dopamine (d) GABA 38. Vivactil (protriptyline) is used mainly as a (an) (a) Analgesic (b) Muscle relaxant (c) Cardiotonic (d) Antidepressant 39.Local anaesthetics block nerve conduction by (a) Blocking all cation channels in the neuronal membrane (b) Hyperpolarizing

51. Type of ring structures present in the structure of diazepam? a) Quiniclidine b) Quinoline c) Diazepine d) All of the above 52. Correct sequence for the True/False for the physiochemical properties of the drugsolifenacin? I. Molecular weight is 284.74 gm/mol II. Colorless to yellow crystalline compound III. Melting point is between 132C IV.

56. Match the following of the drugs with their correct Trade names. i. Secobarbital A. Mustine ii. Mechlorethamine B. Ipamide iii. Cyclophosphamide C. Saconal iv. Ifosfamide D. Cycloxan a) i-B, ii-C, iii-D, iv-A b) i-B, ii-C, iii-A, iv-D c) i-C, ii-A, iii-D, iv-B d) i-A, ii-D, iii-B, iv-C 57. Effect produced due to binding of secobarbital with

62. Correct sequence for the True/False for correct IUPAC names of the drug can be? Benztropin: (3-endo)-3-(Diphenylmethoxy)-8-methyl-8-azabicyclo[3.2.1]octane Fesoterodine: [2-[(1R)-3-(Di(propan-2-yl)amino)-1-phenylpropyl]-4-(hydroxymethyl)phenyl] 2-methylpropanoate Flurazepam: 8-chloro-6-(2-fluorophenyl)-1-methyl-4H-imidazo[1,5-

69. Clobazam is a benzodiazepine used as (a) Hypnotic (b) Muscle relaxant (c) Anxiolytic (d) Antiepileptic 70.Which of the following is a recently developed antiepileptic drug used mainly as add-ontherapy of refractory partial seizures ? (a) Viloxazine (b) Lamotrigine (c) Bupropion (d) Clozapine 71. Gabapentin acts (a) As GABAA agonist (b) As

90. Ethanol is used in methanol poisoning because it (a) Antagonises the actions of methanol (b) Stimulates the metabolism of methanol and reduces its blood level (c) Inhibits the metabolism of methanol and generation of toxic metabolite (d) Replenishes the folate stores depleted by methanol 91. The mechanism of action of barbiturates differs from

75.Though bromocriptine acts directly ondopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only asa supplement to levodopa because (a) It has low efficacy (b) It produces first dose hypotension (c) Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effects (d) Its therapeutic effect takes long time to develop 76. Nitrous oxide is (a)

83. CNS stimulant agents belong to (a) Respiratory stimulants (b) Psychomotor stimulants (c) Psychomimetic agents (d) All of the above 84.Which of the following general anaesthetics has poor muscle relaxant action ? (a) Ether (b) Nitrous oxide (c) Halothane (d) Isoflurane 85.Which of the following general anaesthetics has the most marked uterine

102. Type of ring structures present in the structure of diazepam? a) Quiniclidine b) Quinoline c) Diazepine d) All of the above 103. Due to Potentiation of GABA receptors by Thiamylal? a) Increase in opening duration of calcium channels b) Increase in opening duration of the Chloride channels c) Increase in opening duration of the Sodium channels

108. Correct statements for the IUPAC nomenclatures of the drugs are? I. Thiamylal: 5-(Pentan-2-yl)-5-(prop-2-en-1-yl)-2-sulfanylidenedihydropyrimidine-4,6(1H,5H)-dione. II, Secobarbital: 5-(pentan-2-yl)-5-(prop-2-en-1-yl)-1,3-diazinane-2,4,6-trione III. Quazepam: 5-butan-2-yl-5-ethyl-1,3-diazinane-2,4,6-trione IV. Triazolam:

97. Type of ring structures present in the structure of Alprazolam? a) Triazole b) Benzene c) Diazepine d) All of the above 98. Correct sequence for the True/False for the physiochemical properties of the drug solifenacin? I. Molecular weight is 308.8 gm/mol II. Produces crystals from ethylacetate III. Melting point is between 228-229C IV.

113. Correct sequence for the True/False for the physiochemical properties of the drug Chlordiazepoxide? I. Molecular weight is 299.75 gm/mol II. Yellow crystalline compound III. Melting point is 236.2C IV. Diazepine ring is present a) TFTF b) TTTT c) FFFF d)FFFT 114. Correct statements for the IUPAC nomenclatures of the drugs are? I. Solifenacin:

117. Correct sequence for True/false for the classification of the drug can be? Pentobarbital: benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic Quetipine : benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic Flurazepam: benzodiazepine Eszopiclone: butyrophenone a) TFTF b) FFTF c) TFFF d) FTFT 118. Triketo form of pentobarbital is? a) Most stable in aqueous solution b) Least

1. 7-Chloro-3-hydroxy-5-phenyl-1,3-dihydro-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one is the IUPAC nomenclature of which drug? a) Trihexyphenidyl b) Propantheline c) Oxybutynin d) Oxazepam 2. Match the following with correct classifications of the drugs. i. Propantheline A. Benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic ii. Oxazepam B. Barbiturate iii. Clozapine C. Muscarinic

5. Steps involved in the synthesis of Oxazepam from 6-chloro-2-xhloromethyl-4- phenylquinazolin-3-oxide in the correct sequence is? I. Polonovski reaction II. Treatment with sodium hydroxide III. Hydrolysis a) I II III b) I III c) II d) II I III 6. The drug Oxazepam is mainly used for? a) Treatment of anxiety b) Treatment of Acute alcohol

11.The activity of which of the following drugs is dependent on a p-phenyl N alkylpiperidine moiety? (a) Phenobarbital (b) Chlorpromazine (c) Diazepam (d) Meperidine 12. Which of the following agents would not be an alternative to Phenobarbital in the treatment of partial seizures? (a) Trimethadione (b) Gabapentin (c) Felbamate (d) Lamotrigine

16. An action common to most generalanesthetic (a) Increase in the cellular threshold of firing (b) Potentiation of spontaneous and evoked activity of neurons (c) Inhibition of effects of glutamate (d) None of the abvoe 17.Following is inverse agonist of benzodiazepine receptors (a) Flumazenil (b)-Carbolines (c) Chlordiazepoxide (d) Glutethimide

21.What are the important elements in considering treatment strategies for Parkinsons patients? (a) Age (b) Sex (c) Etiology of the disease (d) All of the above 22. Phenytoin is effective for the treatment of all of the following types of seizures except (a) Generalized tonic-clonic (b) Simple partial (c) Complex partial (d) Absence 23. Which of

26. A patient that has been treated with haloperidol for 3 weeks presents with muscle stiffness, tremor, and shuffling gait. This is most likely which type of extrapyramidal side effect? (a) Akathisia (b) Tardive dyskinesia (c) Pseudoparkinsonism (d) Acute dystonia 27.The atypical antipsychotics differ from the typical agents in various ways that

31. Which of the following patients is mot likely to require maintenance anti depressant therapy? (a) A 22-yearold woman depressed about the loss of a parent (b) A 33-year-old man presenting with his second episode of depression (c) A67-year-old man experiencing his first episode of depression (d) A34-year-old woman experiencing postpartum

44. Which of the following is a poor surface anaesthetic ? (a) Procaine (b) Lidocaine (c) Tetracaine (d) Benoxinate 45. The local anaesthetic having high cardiotoxic and arrhythmogenic potential is (a) Lidocaine (b) Procaine (c) Bupivacine (d) Chloroprocaine 46. Which of the following is a sign of deep anaesthesia ? (a) Appearance of tears in eyes

37. Fluoxetine is a________ transport blocker (a) Serotonin (b) Norepinephrine (c) Dopamine (d) GABA 38. Vivactil (protriptyline) is used mainly as a (an) (a) Analgesic (b) Muscle relaxant (c) Cardiotonic (d) Antidepressant 39.Local anaesthetics block nerve conduction by (a) Blocking all cation channels in the neuronal membrane (b) Hyperpolarizing

51. Type of ring structures present in the structure of diazepam? a) Quiniclidine b) Quinoline c) Diazepine d) All of the above 52. Correct sequence for the True/False for the physiochemical properties of the drugsolifenacin? I. Molecular weight is 284.74 gm/mol II. Colorless to yellow crystalline compound III. Melting point is between 132C IV.

56. Match the following of the drugs with their correct Trade names. i. Secobarbital A. Mustine ii. Mechlorethamine B. Ipamide iii. Cyclophosphamide C. Saconal iv. Ifosfamide D. Cycloxan a) i-B, ii-C, iii-D, iv-A b) i-B, ii-C, iii-A, iv-D c) i-C, ii-A, iii-D, iv-B d) i-A, ii-D, iii-B, iv-C 57. Effect produced due to binding of secobarbital with

62. Correct sequence for the True/False for correct IUPAC names of the drug can be? Benztropin: (3-endo)-3-(Diphenylmethoxy)-8-methyl-8-azabicyclo[3.2.1]octane Fesoterodine: [2-[(1R)-3-(Di(propan-2-yl)amino)-1-phenylpropyl]-4-(hydroxymethyl)phenyl] 2-methylpropanoate Flurazepam: 8-chloro-6-(2-fluorophenyl)-1-methyl-4H-imidazo[1,5-

69. Clobazam is a benzodiazepine used as (a) Hypnotic (b) Muscle relaxant (c) Anxiolytic (d) Antiepileptic 70.Which of the following is a recently developed antiepileptic drug used mainly as add-ontherapy of refractory partial seizures ? (a) Viloxazine (b) Lamotrigine (c) Bupropion (d) Clozapine 71. Gabapentin acts (a) As GABAA agonist (b) As

90. Ethanol is used in methanol poisoning because it (a) Antagonises the actions of methanol (b) Stimulates the metabolism of methanol and reduces its blood level (c) Inhibits the metabolism of methanol and generation of toxic metabolite (d) Replenishes the folate stores depleted by methanol 91. The mechanism of action of barbiturates differs from

75.Though bromocriptine acts directly ondopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only asa supplement to levodopa because (a) It has low efficacy (b) It produces first dose hypotension (c) Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effects (d) Its therapeutic effect takes long time to develop 76. Nitrous oxide is (a)

83. CNS stimulant agents belong to (a) Respiratory stimulants (b) Psychomotor stimulants (c) Psychomimetic agents (d) All of the above 84.Which of the following general anaesthetics has poor muscle relaxant action ? (a) Ether (b) Nitrous oxide (c) Halothane (d) Isoflurane 85.Which of the following general anaesthetics has the most marked uterine

102. Type of ring structures present in the structure of diazepam? a) Quiniclidine b) Quinoline c) Diazepine d) All of the above 103. Due to Potentiation of GABA receptors by Thiamylal? a) Increase in opening duration of calcium channels b) Increase in opening duration of the Chloride channels c) Increase in opening duration of the Sodium channels

What does the abbreviation 'adm' stand for when working in a hospital or nursing facility? What does the abbreviation 'AHA' stand for in working in the medical field? What does the abbreviation 'AIDS' stand for all professionals in nursing facilities as well as society as a whole? What does the abbreviation 'am, AM' mean for employees in nursing

Develop a comprehensive plan for the implementation of a personalized medicine approach in the treatment of cancer. The plan should address the integration of genetic, environmental, and lifestyle factors into individualized treatment regimens, and include strategies for overcoming challenges related to data privacy, cost, and accessibility.

Design a comprehensive strategy for the implementation of a nationwide telemedicine program aimed at improving access to healthcare in rural and underserved areas. The strategy should cover the following aspects: Technology Infrastructure: Identify the necessary technology and infrastructure required for a robust telemedicine system. Clinical

A 64-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a two-month history of worsening shortness of breath. He also has a chronic cough, which he attributes to his smoking. He has a medical history of stable angina. He uses sublingual nitroglycerin PRN (approximately twice a month) and takes no other regular medication. He has a 30 pack-year

A 50-year-old woman presents with recurring episodes of pain and stiffness primarily in her finger joints, which are more pronounced in the morning and last for about 15 minutes. She also experiences shortness of breath, a cough and fatigue, particularly after exposure to cold showers. Additionally, she notices pallor in the skin of her fingers

Acute Diverticulitis A 67-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with an eight-hour history of constant left lower quadrant pain. He has no other gastrointestinal, no genitourinary symptoms. He is otherwise in good health, apart from hypertension, for which he takes perindopril. His blood pressure is 132/76 mmHg, pulse 70/min and

1. How do most insects respire ?

What Is The Responsibility Of A Pharmacist?

Classify Various Phases of clinical Trials?

Write a note on Historical Development of clinical Trials?

What is multiple outcomes design? Explain.

Julia, a 35 year-old female, fractured her right tibia and fibula in a skiing accident. A long leg cast, made of plaster of Paris, is being placed on her leg to reduce and immobilize the fracture. Julia is admitted to the orthopedic nursing unit where you are assigned to be her nurse.Answer the following questions 1. The newly applied cast is

How did the guard ant recognise this ant ?

In what ways do human being use this special sense of smell of dog ?

The walls of the ventricle possess thick muscular projections they are known as......?

Regulation of normal activities of the human heart take place?

The location of the neuro centre activity of the heart is.......?

Blood enters into the heart because muscle of.......?

Cardiac output is determined by.......?

In human being the duration of cardiac cycle is........?

The volume of blood each ventricle pumps out during a cardiac cycle is about......?

Name the three phases of cardiac cycle in the order form.....?

What is the most effective way to stop a nose bleed ?

The patients blood pressure is 180/105 is hyper tension?

How can you assess for jaw fractures ?

The patients states that he was choked during the fight.what is one of the best signs of laryngeal edema in in these patients?

The external auditory meatus extends up to?

What is the tympanic membrane also known as......?

What part of your ear allous the popping that happens when you fly ?

Fluid moving in the cause you to feel dizzy after you stop spinning?

The most delicate bones in your body called?

The part of internal ear responsible for hearing is.....?

Ear part and its functions ?

The membranous labyrinth contains?

The organ of corti is present in.....?

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