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Medical Sciences Questions and Answers April 11, 2020

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33. Image shown here is a vaccine for COVI19. This vaccine belongs to COVO VAX a. Sub unit vaccine b. DNA vaccine c. RNA Vaccine d. Whole virus vaccine

34. A 31yearold man living in a remote tropical village presents with a swollen left leg and scrotum. He says that his symptoms started over two years ago with some small multiple swellings near his groin and have gradually, progressively worsened. He has also noticed that, over time, there has been a progressive coarsening and fissuring of the

35. An 11monthold boy is brought to the clinic by his mother for a rash on his trunk, which he has had for the past 2 days. She notes that he is eating less and is more cranky than usual. His birth history is insignificant, and his immunizations are up to date. Vital signs include temperature is 31.8C, pulse is 98min, and respiratory rate is

36. Ova of an image shown here is obtained from urine specimen of a NRI from Egypt. Choose the correct Infective stage of this pathogen a. Metacercariae b. Pleurocercariae c. Cercariae d. Procercariae BO

37. Choose the correct pair a. Stuart medium Transport medium b. PRAS medium Anaerobic medium c. Selenite F broth Selective medium d. Urease medium Differential medium

38. A 54yearold gardener with diabetes mellitus acquired a small scratch from a thorn while working in his flower garden. After 3 weeks, he noticed a small pink, painless bump at the site of a scratch. He was not concerned by the bump however, additional linearly distributed bumps that resembled boils began to appear 1 week later that were quite

39. A 10yearold boy is brought to the pediatric clinic with a complaint of a sore throat of 1week duration. He also has a cough with fevers. He adds that he has pain during swallowing and sometimes water regurgitates from nose when drinking. He was diagnosed with acute tonsillitis by his primary care physician 1month ago, for which he received a

40. A 24yearold married woman presents to the emergency department with a complaint of severe abdominal pain since last night. She also complains of scanty vaginal bleeding. She says that she visited a physician last year who said that she had a pelvic infection, but she was never treated because of insurance issues. She also states that her

41. Which of the following is absolute contraindication for copper T a. Past history of PID b. Past history of ectopic c. Dysmenorrhea. d. Unexplained vaginal bleeding

42. Which of the following is safest drug for pregnancy induced hypertension a. Captopril b. Methyldopa c. Hydralazine d. Furosemide

43. a woman undergoing infertility treatment has the following image on usg, which of the following drugs is likely cause a. Injection GnRH agonist b. Injection GnRH antagonist c. Injection gonadotropin d. Injection Hcg MIS

44. HPV 16 is associated with what percentage of cervical cancers a. 30 b. 50 c. 70 d. 90

45. pseudomeigs syndrome is associated with which of the following ovarian tumour a. Fibroma b. Granulosa cell c. brenners d. Mucinous

46. the following device is least likely to be used in a. Removing iud b. DE c. Suction evacuation d. Endometrial biopsy

47. Which of the following is an indication for surgical management of Ectopic Pregnancy a. Ectopic mass size 4 cm b. Serum beta hCG levels 2000 miuml c. Patient wants future pregnancy d. Unruptured Ectopic Pregnancy

48. A 24yearold G2P1001 woman is at 34 weeks gestation and noted to be icteric. She also has nausea and vomiting and malaise. A diagnosis of acute fatty liver of pregnancy is made, and the obstetrician recommends immediate delivery. Which of the following is most consistent with acute fatty liver of pregnancy a. Elevated serum bile acid levels b.

49. which of the following is not a characteristic finding on examination if the fetus is in the following position a. limbs in the flank b. Infraumbilical flattening c. Back towards flanks d. FHR in the flank

50. which of the following is a component of AMTSL a. early cord clamping b. controlled cord traction c. uterine massage d. iv bolus oxytocin after delivery

51. what is the treatment of choice for a 28 year old woman who on follow up for post molar evacuation shows the following on chest Xray AMS a. Single dose methotrexate b. Hysterectomy C. EMACO d. Multi dose methotrexate

52. match the following intrauterine infections with the characteristic clinical picture 1.Intracranial clacification, microcephaly, SNHL a.Parvovirus 2.Cutaneous lesions, limb defect, cortical b.CMV atrophy 3.Fetus with scalp edema and ascites 4.microcephaly, cutis gyrata, hypertonia Answer using the code given below a. 1d 2b 3c 4a b. 1b 2d 3a 4c

53. peripheral precocious puberty seen in all except a. Hypothyroidism b. Mc cune Albright syndrome c. Hypothalamic hamartoma d. Ovarian tumour

54. which of the following clinical findings is not seen in women with ashermans syndrome a. Hypomenorrhea b. Primary amenorrhea c. Cyclic pain d. Recurrent pregnancy loss

55. all the following are seen with the following Mullerian anomaly except a. Endometriosis b. Cyclical abdominal pain c. Transverse lie d. Abortions AMS

56. a 45 year old woman presents with heavy irregular bleeding for last 6 months. Her pregnancy test is negative and the following is the usg image obtained what is the diagnosis a. Submucous fibroid b. Endometrial polyp c. Adenomyosis d. Endometrial cancer

57. which is not correctly paired a. Endometrial biopsy for evaluation of infertility day 26 b. Hysterosalpingogramday 8 c. Gonadotropin evaluation day 21 d. Postcoital test day 14

58. what is the treatment of choice for the following Mullerian anomaly a. Transcercical metroplasty b. Tompkins procedure c. Jones d. Strassman metroplasty

59. a Lady who is G6POLO with history of recurrent early pregnancy losses presents at 12 weeks with missed abortion. Which of the following investigation is not warranted for her a. VDRL b. Fetal Karyotype c. Lupus anticoagulant d. Usg pelvis

60. what is the obstetric formula for a woman who is pregnant for the fifth time and has one twin delivery at 34 weeks with both babies alive and healthy, 2 early spontaneous abortions and one delivery of a IUD baby at 37 weeks a. G5P1122 b. G6P1221 c. G5P2121 d. G6P1222

61. All the statements are true about the device shown except a. volume 50ml b. can be used in out patient setting c. generates pressure of 660mmhg d. used up to 12 weeks

62. For women undergoing induction of labor with a Bishop score of 5 or less, all of the following is are used except af labor with a Bishop secon a. dinoprost b. foley catheter c. Cervical application of prostaglandin E 2 d. Laminaria tents

63. what is the following instrument used for a. Myomectomy b. Hysteroscopic polypectomy c. Tubal ring applicator d. Hysterectomy clamps 800

64. Match the letters A,B,C,D with the hormones they represent in the menstrual cycle Ovulation a. ALH BFSH CESTROGEN DPROGESTERONE b. AFSH BLH C ESTROGEN DPROGESTERONE c. AESTROGEN BPROGESTREONE CFSH DLH d. A PROGESTERONE BESTROGEN CLH DFSH

65. A 28yearold G1P0 woman presents to the diabetes clinic at 28 weeks with a recent diagnosis of GDM. By 37 weeks of gestation, she has been started on medical treatment with insulin before each meal. The insulin dosing has increased until 36 weeks when her glycemic control was excellent with all values below threshold. You schedule her for

66. A child was born at 34 weeks of gestation. Ophthalmologist review was sort to rule out retinopathy of prematurity (ROP. On examination, the doctor confirmed that there are no changes of ROP, but he could observe a glial tissue at the optic disc. Visual evoked response revealed normal response. What can be the likely diagnosis among the

67. A 40 year old female complains of blurring vision in both eyes, particularly in morning. She went to see doctor who told her that it could be a corneal dystrophy. Which is more likely dystrophy out of these to cause such symptoms DAMS a. Mapdot dystrophy b. Macular dystrophy c. Fuchs dystrophy d. Lattice dystrophy

68. First visual field defect in glaucoma is a. Isoptre contraction b. Paracentral scotoma in Bjerrum area c. Siedel scotoma in Bjerrum area d. Bjerrum scotoma

70. A diabetic female presents in eye OPD with diminution of vision. There are multiple white dots in retina in all the quadrants in the given investigation. What is not true a. Dye is used in this investigation b. Fluoroscence property is used in this investigation c. Inner blood retinal barrier is breached in this picture d. Stage is

71. What is false for the given pic 0 4ED a. Vertical axis is flatter b. Patient has simple myopic astigmatism c. The corneal curvature of horizontal axis would be more d. 4DC at 180 degree will be the refractive spectacles given for this patient

72. This test is done for a. Glaucoma b. Squint c. Colour vision d. Vision testing

73. What should be the treatment of the condition in a 9 month old child of with the following condition a. 2 lakh IU oral Vit A at 1,4, 16 days b. 1 lakh IU oral Vit A at 0,1, 14 days c. 1 lakh IU oral Vit A at 1,4, 16 days d. 2 lakh IU oral Vit A at 0,1, 14 days

74. A child with acute painful proptosis and small cells on histopathology which turned to be synaptophysin positive. What is the diagnosis a. Rhambomyosarcoma b. Leukemia c. Retinoblastoma d. Chloroma

75. A patient has been on steroid inhalators for asthma for years. He notes blurred vision recently. Which of the following findings are most likely related to the drug a. Anterior Subcapsular cataract b. Posterior Subcapsular cataract c. Corneal edema d. Iris neovascularization DAMS

76. A 40 year old male got his routine blood workup done in which his ALP Levels came out to be 810 times the normal values. He told about the history of occasional backpain as well. Which of the following statements aint true about this condition a. This is likely to be associated with paramyxoviral infection b. Salmon Calcitonin will be helpful

77. A 76 year old lady sustains a slip and fall at home in washroom. She has been complaining of severe pain and swelling in her hip and groin area. On thorough examination, its found that she has shortening of approx.3.5 cm in her lower limb and lateral border of her foot is seen touching the bed sheet. Which of the following treatment options

78. An 8 year old child sustains fall from height while flying kite on the roof. He develops gross swelling over right ankle immediately. He is taken to a doctor whereby X rays were done which dont show any bony fracture. The child is kept on conservative management. Two years later, the child develops Calcaneovalgus deformity of the ankle. What

79. A 22 year old male fell down and sustained a twisting injury to left ankle. On examination there is a lot of swelling around medial malleolus and Xrays In mortise view show increased medial joint space. Which of the following structure is injured Fibula Fracture no a. ATFL b. Spring Ligament c. Deltoid Ligament d. Talonavicular Ligament Tibia

81. An expectant mother is seen for a prenatal visit. Prenatal genetic testing performed on her fetus showed karyotype 45,X. She will be meeting with a genetic counsellor in the coming days. Of the following, the MOST likely cardiac disorder to be seen in this fetus is a. aortopulmonary window b. coarctation of the aorta c. tetralogy of Fallot d.

82. A 17 year old is seen for chronic nasal obstruction. She reports inability to breathe through her nose for several months. She has a history of recurrent bronchitis, sinusitis, and chronic cough. Review of systems is pertinent for bulky stools with a greasy film left in the toilet. The family history is noncontributory. On physical

83. A 6monthold male infant who is limp and exhibiting obtundation in the morning is brought to the emergency department. Bedside blood analysis reveals a significant metabolic acidosis, including an elevated lactate level and a capillary blood glucose level of 35 mgdL (1.9 mmolL and 3 ketones in the urine. His newborn screening results were

83. A 6monthold male infant who is limp and exhibiting obtundation in the morning is brought to the emergency department. Bedside blood analysis reveals a significant metabolic acidosis, including an elevated lactate level and a capillary blood glucose level of 35 mgdL (1.9 mmolL and 3 ketones in the urine. His newborn screening results were

84. A 7yearold boy who had surgery for craniopharyngioma 2 days ago now has increased thirst and frequent urination. He has no vomiting, blurry vision, or seizures. His current medication includes phenytoin. He has a heart rate of 102 beatsmin, a respiratory rate of 16 breathsmin, and a blood pressure of 10260 mm Hg. He has no swelling over his

86. In a 3 months old child with recurrent respiratory infections, which vaccine should not be given a. Measles b. IPV c. BCG d. DPT

88. A 9 years old boy has recurrent sinopulmonary infections and greasy stools. Which of the following is commonly seen in the boy a. Hypernatremia b. Distal bowel obstruction c. Protein losing enteropathy d. Rectal prolapse is most common complication after treatment

89. A child with coarse facial features, hypercalcemia and cardiac findingsmurmur suggestive of supravalvular aortic stenosis, likely defect is in a. 7p b. 7q c. 8p d. 8q

90. In a fetus highest 02 concentration is found in a. SVC b. IVC c. Right Ventricle d. Aorta

91. The direct cardiac effects of dobutamine would be blocked by which one of the following agents a. Prazosin b. Metoprolol c. Clonidine d. Isoproterenol

92. A 56yearold man presents to his physician with persistent back pain due to an injury while making a delivery 3 months ago. The patient said that he often feels persistent numbness and tingling in his back, and the pain often travels down his leg. Which of the following medications may help manage the patients symptoms a. Duloxetine b.

93. A 63yearold man returns to his oncologists office for a routine visit 2 months after undergoing a partial colectomy for the treatment of colon cancer. He is currently on morphine for the management of pain and is concerned about adverse effects. Which of the following effects would most likely remain unchanged after starting morphine DAMS a.

94. Find out the true statements a. Riociguat is the PGI2 analogue b. PGE1 maintains the patency of ductus arteriosus c. Piroxicam is the short acting NSAID d. Lumaricoxib use is restricted because of its cardiotoxicity

95. A 24yearold woman, who is 42 weeks pregnant, is admitted to the hospital for induction oflabor. A fetal heart monitor shows that the fetus is in no acute distress. Sterile examination reveals that she is minimally dilated without significant effacement. Due to an unfavorable cervix, she is given an agent for cervical ripening prior to oxytocin

96. A 66yearold woman with a long history of heavy smoking presents to her doctor with complaints of shortness of breath and chronic coughing that has been present for about 2 years and has been worsening in frequency. The doctor decides to prescribe a bronchodilator agent that has minimal cardiac side effects, since the patient also has an

96. A 66yearold woman with a long history of heavy smoking presents to her doctor with complaints of shortness of breath and chronic coughing that has been present for about 2 years and has been worsening in frequency. The doctor decides to prescribe a bronchodilator agent that has minimal cardiac side effects, since the patient also has an

97. Regarding amiodarone which is the false statements a. According to ACLS guidelines it is the preferred antiarrhythmic drug for treating cardiac arrest b. Chronic therapy causes destruction of type II pneumocytes c. It causes more hyperthyroidism than hypothyroidism d. It causes reversible corneal microdeposits

98. Direct guanyl cycles activator useful in pulmonary hypertension is a. Sivelestat b. Bosentan c. Riociguat d. Selexipag

99. All of the following are GABA analogues useful in treating epilepsy except a. Tiagabine h. Ezogabine c. Stiripentol d. Vigabatrin DAMS

100. All of the following drugs are disease modifying drugs in CCF, except a. Digoxin b. Spironolactone c. Valsartan d. Carvedilol

101. Find out the true and false statements A. Sacubitril inhibits both vasopeptidase and angiotensin converting enzyme B. Ranolazine aggravates movement disorder C. Labetalol has norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor action D. Treimethoprim causes hyperkalemia E. Dofetilitde has least risk of causing QT prolongation a. AT, BT, C.T, DF, ET b. AT, BT,

102. Find out the true and false statement regarding drugs used in covid 19 infection A. Molnupiravir inhibits RNAdirected RNA polymerase B. Molnupiravir Use in patients under 18 years of age can affect bone and cartilage growth C. Molnupiravir administered by intravenous route S D. Remdesivir inhibits DNAdirected RNA polymerase E. Remdesivir

103. Mechanism of action drug A. Proprotein convertase subtilisinkexin9inhibitors B. hydroxy3methylglutarylcoenzyme A reductase inhibitors C. Lipoprotein lipase activator D. Microsomal triglyceride transport inhibitor a. A.4, B.3, C.1, D.2 b. A.3, B.1, C.4, D.2 c. A.4, B.1, C.2, D.3 d. A.2, B.3, C.4, D.1 1. fenofibrate 2. lomitapide 3. pravastatin

104. Which agent is correctly paired with an appropriate clinical use of the drug a. Desmopressin treatment of diabetes insipidus b. Methyl ergometrineinduction of labour c. Bromocriptine Psychosis d. Octreotidetreatment of infertility UAMS

105. Match the following regarding antidiabetic drug and its site of DRUG SITE OF ACTION A. Kidney B. Small intestine C. Adipose tissue D. Hind brain 1. Pramlintide 2. Empagliflozin 3. Miglitol 4. Pioglitazone a. 1.B, 2.A, 3.D. 4.C b. 1.A, 2.C, 3.D. 4.A c. 1.D, 2.A, 3.B. 4.C d. 1.C, 2.A, 3.D. 4. B

106. Find out the true statements A. Lafutidine increases stomatostatin release B. Pantoprazole competitively and reversibly blocking H K ATP ase pump Hur s C. Lansoprazole need dose reduction in liver failure D. Tenatoprazole short acting PPI a. A, C b. B, C c. C, D d. A, B

107. Which of the following isare not the wrong statement A. Bedaquiline has cross resistance with clofazimine B. Aztreonam has cross reactivity with ceftazidime C. Thalidomide useful for type 1 lepra reaction D. Voriconazole is effective for mucormycosis a. A, C b. A, B C c. A, B d. B.C.D

108. Which one of the following is not useful in GIST a. Imatinib b. Regorafenib c. Avapritinib d. Ibrutinib DAMS

109. Match the following Drug A. Rituximab B. Abatacept C. Rilonacept D. Sarilumab a. A4, B3, C2, D1 b. A3, B4, C1, D2 c. A3, B4, C4, D2 d. A2, B 4, C1, D3 Mechanism of action 1. IL 1 inhibitor 2. IL 6 inhibitor 3. B cell activation inhibitor 4. T cell activation inhibitor

110. VGFR blocker approved for treatment of wet ARMD is a. Ocriplasmin b. Pegaptanib c. Netarsudil d. Sunitinib DAMS

111. Which of the following is correctly matched regarding adulterants a. Ergotism crotolaria seeds b. Endemic ascites Argemone oil c. Epidemic dropsy claviceps pupura d. None of these

112. A test for hepatitis C is performed for 400 patient with biopsy proven disease and 400 patient known to be free of the disease. The test shows positive results on 200 of the patients with the disease , and negative result on 360 of the patient without the disease. Which of the following is true regarding this test a. Sensitivity is less than

112. A test for hepatitis C is performed for 400 patient with biopsy proven disease and 400 patient known to be free of the disease. The test shows positive results on 200 of the patients with the disease , and negative result on 360 of the patient without the disease. Which of the following is true regarding this test a. Sensitivity is less than

113. All are true about pvalue except a. Is the probability of committing Type I error b. Is equal to 1 beta c. Is the chance that the presence of difference is concluded when actually there is none d. When pvalue is less than alpha, the result is statistically significant

114. Which of the following is a primary prevention strategy a. Breast self examination b. Physiotherapy c. Radiation protection d. MDT for leprosy

115. Which tests are used in following situations 1Compare mean weights between 3 groups of obese patients 2Mean blood sugar levels were compared before and after administering a new drug 3Association between obesity and diabetes 15 b. 1Student t test, 2 unpaired t test, 3 Chi square test c. 1Paired t test, 2 ANOVA, 3 Chi square test d. 1McNemar

116. Most important criteria to establish under Hills criteria of causation a. Specificity of association b. Sensitivity of association c. Temporal association d. Null association

117. Prevalence of a disease a. Is the best measure of disease frequency in etiological studies b. Can only be determined by a cohort study c. Is the number of new cases in a defined population d. Describes the balance between incidence, mortality and recovery

118. A total of 50 patients with an atypical disease are identified and surveyed by patient interviews with reference to their past exposure to radiation. This study most appropriately illustrates a. Case report b. Case series c. Case control study d. Clinical trial

119. Which of the following isare true statements 1 Under NIS 1st dose of Pentavalent vaccine can be given till (Max limit 2 year 2 Onset of dessiminated BCG infection after BCG is seen between (Time interval 1 month to 12 months 3 Vaccine associated paralytic polio is seen after how many days of recieving OPV between 4 to 30 days DAMS a. 1,2,3

120. Which of the following isare true statements for the image shown below 30 28 26 24 22 20 18 K 16 14 12 10 8 6 4 20 22 24 26 28 30 32 34 36 38 40 42 44 DAITS Cumulative frequency 34 32 1 This is known as ogive curve 2 Median of this data is 30 cm 3 Interquartile range is 10 a. 1,2,3,b. 1,2 only c. 2,3 only d. 1 only

121. Which of the following is a true statement a. OPV is kept at the top of ILR b. Hep B vaccine is not freeze sensitive c. Subcentre is the last storage point of vaccine d. OPV is not freeze sensitive

122. A study revealed that in a study group, intake of betacarotene decreases carcinoma of colon but it actually may be due to increased intake of dietary fibre. This is due to a. Confounding factor b. Misclassification bias c. Randomization d. Sampling error

123. Which of the following is a true statement a. Reservoir of plague domestic rats b. Scratches without oozing of blood is classified under Cat 3 exposure c. Yersinia pestis is category A bioterrorism agent d. Vector of scrub typhus Soft tick

124. SAANS scheme is to prevent deaths related to a. Pneumonia b. Diarrhea c. TB d. Malaria

125. All of the following are disposed in red bag except a. Vaccutainers b. Goggles c. Syringes with fixed needles d. Catheters

126. A 35 year old women suffering from recurrent major depression becomes very distressed when her supervisor asks her to revise a projects she has been working on for weeks. I dont do anything right. I must be the most incompetent person in the firm. I will lose my job for sure she state, sobbing, to her therapist. According to the cognitive

127. Which of the following is not true about waveform seen in EEG below Stage il complex insyntag a. Seen in NREM 2 sleep b. Disorder in this stage is bruxism c. Rapid eye movements d. Reduced EMG levels in this stage sleep spindle

128. All of the following are classified as gateway substances except a. Tobacco b. Alcohol c. Cannabis d. Volatile solvents

129. Which of the following culture bound syndromes seen in india presents with acute anxiety and panic like symptoms a. Koro syndrome b. Dhat syndrome c. Amok syndrome d. Possession syndrome

130. In which of the following stages of Sigmund freuds psychosexual stages of development, does the male child develops a fear of getting castration a. Oral b. Anal c. Phallic d. Genital

131. What structure is indicated by the a. Pectoralis minor b. Pulmonary artery c. Pectoralis major d. Subclavian vein DAMS

132. An enlarged cardiac chamber is demarcated by the .. To which chamber does it point Choose from the following a. Right atrium b. Left ventricle c. Left atrium d. Right ventricle

133. What is the principal etiology of the mediastinal shift in this newborn with respiratory distress a. Atelectasis b. Pneumothorax c. Extralobar sequestration d. Hypoplastic lung DAMS