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Medical Sciences Questions and Answers April 14, 2020

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A 25yearold sexually active woman complains of purulent discharge and dysuria after having intercourse with a new partner. Most sensitive investigation for diagnosis a) Grams staining b) Bacterial growth or culture on selective media c) Wet mount d) Nucleic Acid Amplification Test (NAAT)

A 24yearold female presented with an ulcer in the genital area. A Giemsa stained cervical smear was taken which showed the following image. Identify the causative agent a) Chlamydia b) Gardnerella vaginalis ) Hemophilus ducreyi d) Calymmatobacterium donovani

Which of the following statements is true about Swyer svndrome a) Can be fertile with surrogacy b) Can be fertile with ovum donation c) Presents with primary fertility d) Gonadectomy is indicated for all patients

Which of these is seen in Asherman syndrome a) Oligomenorrhea b) Hypomenorrhea c) Metromenorrhagia d) Polymenorrhea

What is the most likely cause for beaded appearance of fallopian tubes with clubbed ends of fimbriae on HSG a) Genital tuberculosis b) Chlamydia c) Neisseria gonorrhoea d) Endometriosis

Which of these is diagnostic of menopause a) Serum FSH 40 b) Serum LH 20 c) Serum FSH 40 d) Serum estradiol 30

A 23yearold lady taking antiepileptics for a seizure disorder gets married. When should folic acid supplementation advised to the patient a) Any time as soon as she presents to the clinic irrespective of pregnancy b) Three months before becoming pregnant c) 1st trimester d) As soon as pregnancy is confirmed

In the pelvic inlet, which is the shortest anteroposterior diameter a) True conjugate b) Obstetric conjugate c) Anatomical conjugate d) Bispinous diameter

Estrogen and progesterone in the first 2 months pregnancy are produced by a) Fetal ovaries b) Fetal adrenal c) Placenta d) Corpus luteum

What is the first sign of puberty in a girl a) Thelarche b) Menarche c) Adrenarche d) Pubarche

Drug of choice in chronically hypertensive pregnant women requiring long term antihypertensive therapy September 2007 a) Nifedipine b) Metaprolol c) Methyldopa d) Hydralazine

A G3P2, pregnant comes to your clinic at 18 weeks of gestation for genetic counselling. She has a history of two kids born with thalassemia major. Which test would you recommend now a) Amniocentesis b) Chorionic villus sampling c) Cordocentesis d) Noninvasive prenatal testing

Modified BPP consists of a) NST with AFL b) NST with fetal breathing c) NST with fetal movement d) NST with fetal tone

Which of these is not a non contraceptive use of levonorgestrel a) Endometriosis b) Premenstrual tension c) Complex endometrial hJperplasia d) Emergencycontraception

All of these can be used for postcoital contraception except a) Desogestrel b) CopperT c) Levonorgestrel d) OCP

Ulipristal acetate is alan a) GnRH agonist b) Androgen antagonist c) Selective estrogen receptor modulator d) Selective progesterone receptor modulator

What is the approved dose of misoprostol in emergent management of postpartum hemorrhage a) 200 mcg b) 400 mcg c) 600 mcg d) 1000 mcg

What is the best time to give antiD to a pregnant patient a) 12 weeks b) 28 weeks c) 36 weeks d) After delivery

In the following gram stained specimen, identify the bacteria seen a) Streptococcus pneumoniae b) Hemophilus influenzae c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A 35 years old female presented with an adnexal mass. CA125 was slightly raised, CA199 was normal and LDH was elevated. Tumor was resected and the gross and microscopic image was as given below. What is the most likely diagram a) Papillary serous cystadenocarcinoma b) Dysgerminoma c) Teratoma d) Choriocarcinoma 1

The following graph represents the stages of labor. Which of the following statements is true about the graph C 10 Cervical dilatation (cm) Mean 8 B 16 A 20 12 Labor (hr) a) Secondary arrest after progression of labor b) Prolonged active phase of labor c) Prolonged latent phaseprimary arrest of labor d) Normal labor in a primigravida 24 0000

A patient presenting with an adnexal mass was operated and the following tumor was removed. What is the likely diagnosis a) Mature teratoma b) Dysgerminoma c) Granulosa cell tumor d) Mucinous adenocarcinoma

a) A b) B c) C Which of the following is the correct representation of the normal oral glucose tolerance test Plasma glucose (mgdL) 150 125 100 75 50 2 Time (h) d) None of the above

Which of the following medicines taken during pregnancy is responsible for the defect seen in the child below a) Ferrous sulfate b) Isotretinoin c) Folic acid d) Metoclopramide

What dose of misoprostol is used orally to control bleeding in post partum hemorrhage a) 400 micrograms b) 600 micrograms c) 800 micrograms d) 1000 micrograms

What is the maximum capacity of Bakri balloon which is used in post partum hemorrhage a) 200 mL b) 300 in L c) 500 mL d) 1000 m L

What is the drug of choice for precocious puberty in girls a) GnRH analogues b) Cyproterone acetate c) Danazol d) Medroxyprogesterone acetate

A young female presented to you with primary amenorrhea. Examination reveals normal breast development and absent axillary hairs. Pelvic examination shows a normally developed vagina with clitoromegaly. On ultrasound, gonads are visible in the inguinal region. What is the most likely diagnosis a) Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome b) Partial

Which of the following statements is not true about cervical cancer screening guidelines according to WHO a) Pap smear should be repeated yearly in women of reproductive age group b) HPV test should be done five yearly in women between age of 30 to 49 years c) Visual inspection with acetic acid is more reliable at older age as it becomes easier to

Which of the following statements is true regarding medical abortion a) Ultrasound should be done in all cases b) If the patient has an IUCD insitu, it doesnt need to be removed c) Can only be done up to 72 days d) Only a person certified under MTP act can perform medical termination of pregnancy

Partograph represents various stages of labor with respect to time. True about partograph is all except a) Each small square represents one hour b) Alert and action lines are separated by a difference of 4 hours c) Partograph recording should be started at a cervical dilation of 4 cm d) Send the patient to first referral unit if the labor

In Downs syndrome, 2nd trimester quadruple test includes all EXCEPT a) Alpha fetoprotein b) HCG c) Inhibin A d) PAPP

Denominator for maternal mortality rate September 2005, 2010, March 2013 (d, e, h) a) 100,000 pregnancies b) 100,000 live births c) 100,000 births is d) 100,000 population

What is the rate of release of levonorgestrel into the uterus from Mirena, a progestin releasing intrauterine device a) 20 microgmd b) 30 microgmd c) 50 microgmd d) 70 microgmd

Treatment of choice in a postmenopausal lady with atypical endometrial hyperplasia is a) Estrogens b) Hysterectomy c) Progestogens d) Radiotherapy

A 40 year old woman presents with abnormal cervical cytology on PAP smear suggestive of CIN III (HSIL). The next best step in management is a) Hysterectomy b) Colposcopy and LEEP c) Colposcopy and Cryotherapy d) Conization

All of the following are reversible long acting contraceptives except a) Copper T b) Laparoscopic tubal ligation c) LNGIUS d) Implanon

Placenta grade 3, 353 weeks pregnancy, and absent end diastolic flow in Doppler next management is a) Dexamethasone and terminate after 48 hours b) Terminate after 37 weeks c) Talk with pediatrician and termination d) Monitor and do nothing

Conversion of a complete hydatidiform mole into choriocarcinoma is indicated by all, EXCEPT a) Plateau HCG levels b) Enlarged Uterine size c) Persistence of theca Lutein cysts d) Suburethral Nodule

What should be the time of termination of pregnancy of a female with insulin dependent diabetes a) 40 weeks b) 38 weeks c) 37 weeks d) 34 weeks

What is not included in active management of third stage of labour a) Early cord clamping b) Uterine massage c) Use of oxytocin d) Controlled cord traction

A 52 year old lady presents with constant leakage of urine and dysuria two weeks after a complicated total abdominal hysterectomy. A diagnosis of Vesicovaginal fistula is suspected. The most important test for the diagnosis is a) Triple Swab Test b) Urine culture c) Cystoscopy d) IVP

Before ovulation development of granules in a cell is dependent on a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) FSH d) LH

A lady presented with secondary amenorrhea 6 months after having an abortion. Her FSH levels were measured as 6 mIUml what is the most probable diagnosis a) Pituitary failure b) Ovarian failure c) Fresh pregnancy d) Uterine synechiae

Anti D prophylaxis is administered in all except a) MTP at 63 days b) Amniocentesis at 16 weeks c) Manual removal of placenta d) Intrauterine transfusion 28 weeks

Pre eclampsia with torsades de pointes, stable vitals. The next best management will be a) DC shock b) MgSO4 c) IV Calcium d) None

A 26 years old patient co foul smelling greyish white discharge diagnosed to be Gardnerella vaginalis infection. Microscopic finding is suggestive of a) Group of bacilli arranged in chain forms b) Bacteria found to be engulfed by macrophages c) Bacteria adherent to lining vaginal epithelial cells d) Bacteria arranged in cluster forms

A primigravida 37 POG diagnosed to be having transverse lie... Which of the following are correct A. Repeat USG to confirm position B. Do cesarean section at onset of labour C.During CS deliver by breech D.Transverse lie is associated with placenta previa E. Admit at 36 weeks a) True true false false true b) False false True true true c) True

IV loading dose of MgSo4 prophylaxis in preeclampsia a) 8ml MgS0410ml of NS b) 10ml MgSo410ml of NS c) 8ml MgSo412ml of NS d) 12ml MgSO48 ml of NS

In atonic PPH which of the following is done A. Uterine massage B. Ergometrine is administered to all C. BLynch is administered to all D. Suction of uterus a) a And b are true b) b and c are true c) a d are true d) b and d are true

Nonpulsatile dose of GnRH agonist is used in all the following conditions except a) Endometriosis b) infertility c) Precocious puberty d) Prostate cancer

DOC for bacterial vaginosis in pregnancy a) Clindamycin b) Erythromycin c) Rovamycin d) Metronidazole

9. Mr. Deide, a 35year old man admitted into the male ward of a psychiatric hospital was manifesting irrationalbehaviours. He is scheduled for electroencephalography (EEG). Write briefly on Electroencephalogram (EEG). (4 mks) (a) (b) Explain the following psychiatric concepts and give two (2) examples of each (i) Hallucination (ii) Disorientation

Mallam Tsoho, a 65year old fanner is admitted with congestive cardiac failure secondary to hypertension. a) Using a well labelled diagram, describe the circulation of blood through the heart.(5 mks) b) What are the pathological changes in congestive cardiac failure(5mks) c) Develop a Nursing Care Plan to solve three (3) nursing diagnoses of Mallam

(a) (b) (c) (d) Miss John, an 18year old undergraduate is admitted into the female medical ward with a diagnosis of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Outline four (4) possible causes of this condition (2 mks) Describe in detail the nursing and medical management of Miss John from admission till discharge (12 mks) List four (4) complications of this

16. Describe your responsibilities as a nurse in the following (a) Care of a patient with indwelling catheter (b) Prevention of nosochomial infection (c) Handing and taking over a ward (d) Care of patient with burst abdomen (5 mks each)

ver 2 17. Mr. Ojo, a 60year old obessed politician was rushed to medical outpatient clini with the history of urinary incontinence. A diagnosis of overactive bladder syndrom was made. (a) With the aid of a well labelled diagram, describe the gross anatomy of th kidney.(6 mks) (b). Explain the role of the kidney in maintaining normal regulation of

18 specimen (a) Describe the process of bone formation. (4 mks) () Explainthe pathophysiology of acute osteomyelitis.(5 mks) (c) Develop a Nursing Care Plan to solve three (3) Nursing diagnoses of Mrs. Justina. (9 mks) Enumerate four (4) complications of osteomyelitis.(2 mks)

An Accident and Emergency trained nurse is sometimes confronted with patients brought in at a timewith urgent medical conditions that require to prioritized. a) b) d) Explainthe concept of triage in the emergency department of your hospital.(5 mk Describe the currently recommended guidelinesprocedures for cardiopulmona resuscitation.(7 mks) c) As

Mr Jago, a45year pld business man was brought to the emergency unit of your hospital with the complaint of acute abdominal pain, muscle rigidity and localized rebound (abdominal) tenderness. After clinical assessment, a diagnosis Peritonitis was made. (a) With the aid of a well labelled diagram, describe the small and large intestine.(6 mks) (b)

Describe the demographic, epidemiological and fertility transitions. Briefly define each and explain what caused the process to get started. What happens to the mortality and birth rates during each of four stages of the demographic transition? In general, where in the world has the demographic transition been completed and where not completed?

A proponent of Malbec, Syrah, and Merlot wines (all reds) touts their contribution to longevity, but this wine aficionado also controls the caloric content of his diet such that his body mass index is

1 A 50-year-old man experiences episodes of severe substernal chest pain every time he performs a task that requires moderate exercise. The episodes have become more frequent and severe over the past year, but they can be relieved by sublingual nitroglycerin. On physical examination, he is afebrile, his pulse is 78/min and regular, and there are

A person without any anomaly is 2n=46; A person with down syndrome would be 2n=46 (+1), diploid but an extra copy of a chromosome, It is TRUE OR FALSE?

What is the Metime cancer risk of an adult eating fish that are found in a river with a concentration of 7.5 ppb of chloroform in the water

Estimate the cancer risk for a 60 kg worker exposed to chlorororm fames using the standard exposure factors for industrial and commercial exposure (table look up values). The average chlorororm concentration in the air is measured to be 0.075 mgm during the workday. Provide your answer rounded to three decimal places and use scientific notation 6,

Obesity is becoming one of the major health problems in the society due to bad feeding habits. (a) Define Obesity(2 mks) (b) Enumerateten (10) causes of obesity.(5 mks) (c) Describe three (3) management approaches to obesity.(9 mks) (d) Outline eight (8) complications of obesity.(4 mks)

(a) Differentiate between drug abuse and drug misuse.(2 mks) (b) List six (6) causes of substance abuse.(3 mks) (c) Describe the characteristics of drug dependence. (5 mks) (d) Outline the steps for counselling a25year old young man who is addicted to cannabis.(10 mks)

Mr. Fredrick, a 19year old undergraduate was admitted into your ward with the diagnosis of Acute Lymphocytic Leukaemia. With a schematic diagram, describe the formation and maturation of white blood cells.(5 mks) Explain the pathophysiology of Mr. Fredricks condition. (4 mks) List four (4) other types of leukemia. (2 mks) Utilizing the nursing

Gloconeogensis is a process that the body uses to generate glucose when blood sugar falls too low. True or false ?

explain the Mechanism of action of paracetamol.

Choose a physicist, write about their achievement and what did they do that intrigues you.

Make a day's meal (breakfast, lunch, dinner) for a particular patient assigned to you taking into consideration what is good/best for him/her. and the ailment your patient is suffering from . Patient; Chronic Kidney Disease patient (on dialysis)

Maria is a 67-year-old retired, obese woman, who lives with her husband Max. She enjoys sitting down to a movie every night with a bottle of Shiraz and a large packet of salt and vinegar chips or tub of cookies and cream ice cream. She has always loved a glass or two of wine with dinner, but now figures she can have a few more since she no longer

A person's nutrient needs may change for a variety of reasons, but the most influential is stage-of-life. you will examine two stages of life chosen from the following: Infancy Childhood Adolescence Adulthood Older adulthood Pregnancy and Lactation 1.Identify the two life stages of life you will discuss and list their names in the title 2.Research

Culturally acquired patterns of pain responses may also influence the neurophysiological and verbal responses to pain. 1.Response to pain may be limited by what 2 factors? 2.Pain-coping strategies may be influenced by what? 3.As a support worker, what 8 things should be aware of when managing pain for a client with differing views on pain?

Mobile health can transform how individuals access healthcare. Please include references The following criteria must be addressed in the assignment: 1.Define mobile Health. 2.What are the strengths of using mobile Health technologies in clinical practice? 3.What are the barriers to using mobile Health technologies in clinical practice? 4.Explain

1.Describe the components of an mHealth intervention to support a patient with a chronic condition. 2.What are the strengths of using mHealth technologies in clinical practice? 3.What are the barriers to using mHealth technologies in clinical practice? 4.Explain some of the risks involved in using mHealth technology.

1.What threats to your health and well-being do you think you may experience throughout your life? What are they and why might they be a threat to you? 2.What are steps you can take now that will help you live a long, healthy life and minimize the likelihood of various types of non-communicable/chronic diseases and disabilities when you become an

A healthy 26 year old woman, recently married, is anxious to conceive and visit the physician for evaluation. she is worrried that her cycle comes at interval of 28 to 32 days and not on fixed date every month her physician reassures that such variations are normal. which of following about physiology of menstruation is incorrect Option A follows

GLUTS and SGLTS are two types of sugar transporter present in intestine and kidneys. Which of the following transporters is defective in renal glycosuria Options A GLUT1 B GLUT2 C SGLT1 D SGLT2

Patients with advanced stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia, a B-cell neoplasm, were treated with anti-CD20 Fab fragment bound to a radioactive molecule for directed killing. Surprisingly, use of an intact anti-CD20 molecule without attached toxin or radioactive molecule was found to be as effective as the radioactive preparation with less toxicity

Some tumor cells characteristically re-express antigens found only early in normal development of that cell type. One example of this is which of the following protein/tumor pairs? A. CD20 and B cell neoplasm. B. prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and prostatic adenocarcinoma. C. E6/E7 and cervical carcinoma. D. alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) and

Discussion post requiring 2 scholarly references within 5 years. Review an article regarding technology transfer to a developing nation. Discuss barriers to the technology transfer presented in the article.

Describe how the rate of catalysis of catalase can be monitored in highly concentrated hydrogen peroxide solution stating an equation to support your explanation.

Briefly discuss the challenges associated with malarial control programmes in Africa.

Discuss 3 biochemical strategies used in the fight against plasmodium infections.

Before surgery, forcible correction of severe scoliosis curve can Be achieved by: A Halter traction Halo-pelvic traction Turnbuckle cast D Riser jacket E Costrel cast.

Commonest late complication of spinal fusion in scoliosis is: A Recurrence of deformity Pseudoarthrosis Neurological deficit D All of above E None of above.

In myelomeningocele scoliosis occurs due to: A Asymmetrical paralysis of spinal and abdominal muscles Congenital deformities of vertebrae Fixed pelvic obliquity D Any of above E None of above.

How does paralytic scoliosis differ from idiopathic scoliosis: A Progress of curve stops after maturity Scoliosis can progress even after maturity Curves are usually short D Bracing is quite effective in controlling progress E Curve never becomes very severe.

Which of the following statement is not true about severe varus strain injury of knee: A Usually no specific treatment is required Fracture of head of fibula should arouse suspicion of this injury Lateral popliteal nerve can be damaged D Stress radiographs are required to confirm the diagnosis E Plain X-ray can be normal even in the presence of

Which of the following statement is not true about fracture of patella. A Even undisplaced fractures require patellectomy Quadriceps expansion may be intact in direct injury Quadriceps expansion is ruptured when gap is palpable between patellar fragments D Knee can not be actively extend if quadriceps expansion is ruptured E Displaced patellar

Complete rupture of tendo calcaneus is best treated by: A Physiotherapy Arthrodesis of ankle and subtalar joint Raised shoe D Tendon transfer E Surgical exploration and repair.

Stability of knee joint depends mainly on: A Bony configuration Muscles Ligaments D Tendons E Menisci.

Which of the following is true about acute rupture of tendc calcaneus (tendo-achillis): A It occurs due to direct injury Radiograph will confirm the diagnosis Compression of calf muscles produces planterflexion of ankle D It usually occurs in middle aged persons E Surgical repair is unnecessary.

For a distended knee joint which of the following position ismost comfortable: A Full extension 30 flexion 60 flexion D 90 flexion E 120 flexion.

Shenton line is broken in all of following except: A Posterior dislocation of hip Impacted fracture of femoral neck Congenital dislocation of hip D Pathological dislocation of hip E Tom Smith arthritis.

Which of the following is not seen in intracapsular fracture of femoral neck. A Collapse of head after union of fracture Mai union with more than 3" of shortening Avascular necrosis of femoral head D Non union E Missed diagnosis.

What is true about supracondylar fractures of femur: A Distal fragment tilts posteriorly due to pull of gastrocnemius Distal fragment tilts anteriorly due to pull of quadriceps Can be treated quite well by K-nailing D Can usually be treated with Russell traction E Can be complicated by injury to sciatic nerve.