Question: Should a business be able to invoke the 1st Amendment protection at all on the basis of the business owner(s) personal beliefs as human beings?

Should a business be able to invoke the 1st Amendment protection at all on the basis of the business owner(s) personal beliefs as human beings? Why or why not? If the business is a separate person, as the Court has held in finding that the business has an independent Constitutional right, how can this corporate person, as an entity, manifest an independent religious belief?

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