Suppose there are two markets $\backslash (($X $\backslash )$ and $\backslash ($ Y $\backslash ))$ that hire otherwise identical workers, but the work in market $\backslash ($ X $\backslash )$ is considered to be more unpleasant than market Y $.$ In all other aspects, the markets offer the same job characteristics. We would expect:a$.$ higher wages in market $\backslash ($ X $\backslash )$ than in market $\backslash ($ Y $\backslash )$b$.$ higher wages in market $\backslash ($ Y $\backslash )$ than in market $\backslash ($ X $\backslash )$c$.$ no difference in wages in markets $\backslash ($ X $\backslash )$ and $\backslash ($ Y $\backslash )$d$.$ no workers to be willing to work in market $\backslash ($ X $\backslash )$